It would be false, since no number multiplied by 2 can ever be odd. And "2a" is more standard than "a2".
Is this statement true or false. "If 'a' is an odd number, then a2 is odd?
Levi is correct ... Unless by "a2" you mean "a(squared)", in which case the statement is true ... As an odd number multiplied by itself, will be an odd number.